Full Idea
Is Leibniz's Law as true for 'is the same as' as it is for '='?
Gist of Idea
Do both 'same f as' and '=' support Leibniz's Law?
Source
David Wiggins (Sameness and Substance Renewed [2001], 1.2)
Book Reference
Wiggins,David: 'Sameness and Substance Renewed' [CUP 2001], p.27
A Reaction
[By Leibniz's Law he means if they are the same, they support the same truths]