Full Idea
Suppose the vote yields no object, that nothing satisfies most, or even any, substantial number, of the φ's. Does that mean the name doesn't refer? No.
Gist of Idea
A name can still refer even if it satisfies none of its well-known descriptions
Source
Saul A. Kripke (Naming and Necessity lectures [1970], Lecture 2)
Book Reference
Kripke,Saul: 'Naming and Necessity' [Blackwell 1980], p.86
A Reaction
As example he gives the case of 'Gödel' referring to the famous man, even if none of the descriptions of him are true. In Note 42 he blames the descriptivists for relying too much on famous people.
Related Idea
Idea 17032 Even if Gödel didn't produce his theorems, he's still called 'Gödel' [Kripke]