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Single Idea 9486

[filed under theme 8. Modes of Existence / D. Universals / 3. Instantiated Universals ]

Full Idea

An instantiation condition seems to be a failure of nerve as regards realism about universals. If universals really are entities in their own right, why should their existence depend upon a relationship with existing particulars?

Gist of Idea

Why should a universal's existence depend on instantiation in an existing particular?

Source

Alexander Bird (Nature's Metaphysics [2007], 3.2.2)

Book Ref

Bird,Alexander: 'Nature's Metaphysics' [OUP 2007], p.55


A Reaction

I like this challenge, which seems to leave fans of universals no option but full-blown Platonism, which most of them recognise as being deeply implausible.


The 12 ideas with the same theme [universals only existing in actual things]:

Colour must be in an individual body, or it is not embodied [Aristotle]
No universals exist separately from particulars [Aristotle]
Past, present and future must be equally real if universals are instantiated [Armstrong]
Universals are abstractions from states of affairs [Armstrong]
Universals are abstractions from their particular instances [Armstrong, by Lewis]
Universals aren't parts of things, because that relationship is transitive, and universals need not be [Lewis]
Located universals are wholly present in many places, and two can be in the same place [Oliver]
Aristotle's instantiated universals cannot account for properties of abstract objects [Oliver]
If universals ground similarities, what about uniquely instantiated universals? [Oliver]
The One-In-Many view says universals have abstract existence, but exist in particulars [Moreland]
An immanent universal is wholly present in more than one place [Zimmerman,DW]
Why should a universal's existence depend on instantiation in an existing particular? [Bird]