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Full Idea
Why should abstraction from two equipollent sets lead to the same set of 'pure units'?
Clarification
'Equipollent' means they map one-to-one onto each other
Gist of Idea
Why should abstraction from two equipollent sets lead to the same set of 'pure units'?
Source
William W. Tait (Frege versus Cantor and Dedekind [1996])
Book Ref
'Philosophy of Mathematics: anthology', ed/tr. Jacquette,Dale [Blackwell 2002], p.42
A Reaction
[Tait is criticising Cantor] This expresses rather better than Frege or Dummett the central problem with the abstractionist view of how numbers are derived from matching groups of objects.