Full Idea
By what right can Dedekind suppose that there is a number corresponding to any pair of irrationals that constitute an irrational cut?
Gist of Idea
Why should a Dedekind cut correspond to a number?
Source
Kit Fine (Replies on 'Limits of Abstraction' [2005], 2)
Book Reference
-: 'Philosophical Studies' [-], p.390
Related Idea
Idea 18093 For Eudoxus cuts in rationals are unique, but not every cut makes a real number [Bostock]