Full Idea
The question is whether a priori concepts precede, as conditions under which alone something can be, if not intuited, nevertheless thought as objects in general.
Gist of Idea
Are a priori concepts necessary as a precondition for something to be an object?
Source
Immanuel Kant (Critique of Pure Reason [1781], B125/A93)
Book Reference
Kant,Immanuel: 'Critique of Pure Reason', ed/tr. Guyer,P /Wood,A W [CUO 1998], p.224
A Reaction
This remains a good question. Some sort of synthesis of impressions is required in order to perceive an object. To think of it as a rational inference seems wildly wrong, as it is instantaneous. How do dogs get along, I wonder….