Full Idea
Bentham has not made up his mind whether he thinks that 'right' means 'productive of the general happiness', or that being productive of the general happiness is what makes acts right (and he would have thought the difference unimportant).
Gist of Idea
Is 'productive of happiness' the definition of 'right', or the cause of it?
Source
comment on Jeremy Bentham (Intro to Principles of Morals and Legislation [1789]) by W. David Ross - The Right and the Good §I
Book Reference
Ross,W.David: 'The Right and the Good' [OUP 1930], p.8
A Reaction
The issue is whether rightness exists as a concept separate from happiness. I take it Bentham would vote for the first reading, as he has no interest in what is right, apart from increasing happiness.