Full Idea
It seems that a proper name could not have a reference unless it did have a sense, for how, unless the name has a sense, is it to be correlated with the object?
Gist of Idea
How can a proper name be correlated with its object if it hasn't got a sense?
Source
John Searle (Proper Names [1958], p.91)
Book Reference
'Philosophical Logic', ed/tr. Strawson,P.F. [OUP 1973], p.91
A Reaction
This might (just) be the most important question ever asked in modern philosophy, since it provoked Kripke into answering it, by giving a social, causal, externalist account of how names (and hence lots of language) actually work. But Searle has a point.