Single Idea 17031

[catalogued under 5. Theory of Logic / F. Referring in Logic / 1. Naming / b. Names as descriptive]

Full Idea

Suppose the vote yields no object, that nothing satisfies most, or even any, substantial number, of the φ's. Does that mean the name doesn't refer? No.

Gist of Idea

A name can still refer even if it satisfies none of its well-known descriptions

Source

Saul A. Kripke (Naming and Necessity lectures [1970], Lecture 2)

Book Reference

Kripke,Saul: 'Naming and Necessity' [Blackwell 1980], p.86


A Reaction

As example he gives the case of 'Gödel' referring to the famous man, even if none of the descriptions of him are true. In Note 42 he blames the descriptivists for relying too much on famous people.

Related Idea

Idea 17032 Even if Gödel didn't produce his theorems, he's still called 'Gödel' [Kripke]